DGCA Exam Question paper

DGCA Air Navigation Regular session 2025 Exam Question Paper | DGCA Exam Question Paper 2026

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Air Navigation Regular session 02 of 2025 Afternoon Paper 1. Choose appropriate option regarding stopway A. Centerline of runway need to be aligned with stopway B. Center line of stopway is ofset to 50ft C. Centerline of runway need not to be aligned with stopway 2. Sun rises over head Delhi A. Once a year B. Twice a year C. Never 3. Scale at 30N is 1:3500000 then scale at 40N is 4. 60 USG usable fuel is remaining with 12USG alternate fuel. The remaining time to the station is 1:35 min. Max fuel consumption that can be used is 5. Morse code ident of DME is transmitted once every ____ A. 10 sec B. 20 sec C. 30 sec 6. Which of the following is not an advantage of SSR A. Can transmit signal to individual aircraft B. Display aircraft as… C. Considerably reduce transmission power 7. Radio altimeter can accurately give reading between A. 0 to 2700 ft B. 50 to 2700 ft C. 0 to 2500 ft 8. VOR question were there about OBS correct sensing, drift 9. The aircraft drifted from its track at 90 NM, ADF reads 190, track 090, total distance 135 NM. Find out closing angle A. 30°P B. 30°S C. 10°S 10. Departure time in flight plan is A. Startup time B. Take off time C. Off block time 11. Aircraft in level flight where the layer below the aircraft is cold front. Altimeter reading will be A. Higher than real altitude B. Same as real altitude C. — 12. ASI is calibrated A. According to conditions in ISA B. According to conditions in ISA at MSL C. According to density altitude where 1.225 kg/m³ is 13. A GC track from A (59°N 141°W) to B (61°N 148°W). At B it will A. Increase by 6° B. Decrease by 6° C. Increase by 3° 14. Failure of radio altimeter will result in A. Loss of true altitude data B. Loss of true height data C. Loss of density altitude data 15. Date of perihelion 16. In a gyro wander, drift occurs in which plane A. Horizontal B. Vertical C. Horizontal and vertical both 17. Obstacle clearance for terrain of altitude 10600 ft is 1500 ft. QNH obtained is 1023 hPa. At what minimum flight level aircraft must fly 18. Which of the following is VOR frequency if VOR is paired with ILS A. 109.90 B. 112.20 C. 108.10 19. A flight plan is to be filled but number of passengers are not known, what can be written in appropriate flight plan item (Answer: P/TBN) 20. Cruise speed of 285 Knots will be written in flight plan as A. N0285 B. N285 C. K285 21. Some questions can be directly solved using CX3 such as we were given TAS, W/V, TCRS and had to find GS and drift angle 22. Same TAS and all were given this time you had to find WCA 23. AC at FL290, ISA deviation is -6°, RAS is 255. What is Mach number? 24. Total distance from dep to destination is 1000 NM. CP is at 480 NM when tailwind is 20 kts. In-flight wind changes to 30 kts tailwind. What will happen to new CP? A. Less than 480 B. More than 480 C. CP only changes when wind becomes headwind 25. The operational details of an aircraft are: MTOW = 72000 kg, MLW = 63000 kg, MZFW = 60000 kg, Burn-off = 6.5T, Reserve = 3.5T, Operating weight = 42000 kg. Maximum payload = ? A. 20000 kg B. 18000 kg C. 17500 kg 26. Errors of DGI 27. Artificial horizon turning error questions 28. What is precession? 29. Gyro rigidity can be increased by A. More mass at periphery and high RPM B. More mass close to axis and low RPM C. More mass at periphery and low RPM 30. Servo altimeters are more ______ because of ________ A. Accurate, electric pick off coil B. Accurate, aneroid capsule C. Inaccurate, electric pick off coil 31. Minimum of V1 is ? 32. In Vmcg rudder paddle force should not exceed A. 300lbs B. 150Lbs C. 200lbs 33. Magnetic compass must be swung in which case A. After it has passed through heavy storm and struck by lightning B. After replacing a radio equipment which was unserviceable from very long C. Before departing for a destination where significant change of latitude will happen 34. In which projection plane of paper will touch reduced earth at one of its poles A. Genomic B. Stereographic C. Lambert 35. Angular difference between magnetic north and true north A. Variation B. Deviation C. Convergency 36. Which segment of takeoff determines climb weight A. First segment B. Second segment C. Third segment 37. At least how much time before departure you can fill flight plan A. 30 min B. 60 min C. 2 hours 38. DOM = 33510 kg, Load = 7600 kg, Final reserve fuel = 983 kg, Alternate = 1100 kg, Contingency = 102 kg. Estimated landing mass at alternate: A. 42195 kg B. 42093 kg C. 42210 kg 39. Still air distance in climb = 189 NAM, time = 30 min, wind = 30 kt headwind. Ground distance? A. 219 nm B. 159 nm C. 174 nm 40. Working of primary radar and secondary is respectively (Answer: Primary depends on reflection/echo; secondary uses transponder) 41. Question regarding clearway: If there is no stopway, should the clearway be built or not? 42. Questions from RMI with info given and correct diagram to be selected 43. At night, a position to be reported to ATC, distance 750 nm from station. Which frequency? A. 17296 kHz B. 123.9 MHz C. 5649 kHz 44. In isothermal layer at constant Mach descent A. TAS increases B. TAS decreases C. TAS remains constant 45. The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies with: A. Aircraft altitude B. Time at given altitude C. Mach number 46. If one static out of 2 is not calibrated for position error, reading will A. Under read at high speed B. Under read near ground C. Read correctly 47. CDMVT question – choose correct compass conversion (Deviation was -2°, not 2°W) 48. The lower and upper limit of the green arc in ASI is? 49. Aneroid capsule in altimeter senses A. Static pressure B. Pitot and static pressure C. Dynamic pressure 50. In item 19 of flight plan endurance is written from A. Total flight fuel B. Usable fuel C. Usable fuel minus reserve 51. Circumference of Earth is approximately A. 21600 nm B. 10800 nm C. 40000 nm 52. Line joining places of equal dip is A. Agonic line B. Isogonal C. Aclinic 53. Accuracy of one of the SSR Mode C is A. ± 300 feet B. ± 150 feet C. ± 50 feet 54. False glidepath will be intercepted if 3° glide slope is maintained at A. 6° B. 1.35° to 5.25° C. 0.45° to 1.75° 55. 2 questions were from Satellite

DGCA Exam Related FAQs

Q1: Is there negative marking in DGCA CPL pilot module exams?

Answer: No. DGCA pilot written exams do not feature negative marking. Scores are calculated solely based on correct responses (minimum 70% required to pass). Candidates should answer every question on the CBT screen without leaving blanks.

Q2: How many attempts are allowed for DGCA pilot exams?

Answer: Unlike CAR 66 AME modules, DGCA does not enforce a hard total attempt cap or a mandatory multi-month lock for standard CPL theory attempts. Candidates can re-appear for failed subjects in subsequent regular sessions or Online On-Demand Examinations (OLODE).

Q3: What is the minimum waiting period or re-attempt gap between failed CPL exams?

Answer: Candidates can reapply in the next available regular quarterly session or through monthly OLODE (Online On-Demand Examination) slots. In specific fast-track or on-demand setups, rules enforce a minimum 7-day to 42-day cooling-off period between re-sitting the exact same subject to prevent back-to-back blind attempts.

Q4: Are flight computers (CX-3 / CRP-5) or scientific calculators allowed in the exam hall?

Answer: Physical scientific calculators are strictly banned. However, for Air Navigation, physical navigation computers like the Jeppesen Sanderson (CRP-5) or Dalton E6B (non-electronic) are permitted at designated exam centers, along with basic on-screen digital calculators provided within the CBT exam system.

Q5: What is the exam pattern and duration for CPL subjects?

Answer: Exams are delivered via Computer-Based Tests (CBT) consisting of 50 to 100 Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs). Duration ranges from 2 hours (Meteorology, Air Regulations) to 3 hours (Air Navigation, Technical General).

Q6: How do I book exam slots for regular DGCA pilot sessions on the Pariksha portal?

Answer: Log in to pariksha.dgca.gov.in using your Computer Number. When DGCA opens the session application window (4 times a year: March, June, September, December), select your subjects, pick your preferred exam center city, and pay the examination fees online.

Q7: What is the difference between Regular DGCA Exam Sessions and OLODE (On-Demand) exams?

Answer: Regular Sessions occur 4 times a year across all national centers for all subjects. OLODE (Online On-Demand Examination) sessions run more frequently (often monthly) at select regional DGCA exam hubs, allowing students who failed a subject to re-attempt quickly without waiting for the next main quarterly cycle.

Q8: What mandatory identification documents must I carry to the pilot exam center?

Answer: Candidates must present:

  • A printed copy of the official DGCA Pariksha Admit Card.
  • A valid, original government Photo ID (Aadhaar Card or Passport matching eGCA records).
  • Verification details matching your registered Computer Number.
Q9: What happens if my exam fee payment fails or gets deducted without booking confirmation?

Answer: Do not make immediate duplicate payments. Log back into the Pariksha portal dashboard, access the Refund/Transaction Module, and submit your transaction ID alongside your bank account details. Failed fees are typically reconciled or refunded by DGCA within 30 to 90 days.

Q10: Why do candidates struggle most with Air Navigation and Technical General?

Answer: Air Navigation involves complex, multi-step flight calculations (drift, wind correction vectors, departure/fuel calculations, convergency). Technical General requires deep systems knowledge of turbine engines, hydraulic systems, and electrical circuits. Success relies heavily on systematic practice with authentic past question banks rather than passive reading.

Pilot FAQs

Q1: What is a DGCA Computer Number, and why is it mandatory for pilots?

Answer: A DGCA Computer Number is a unique central identification number issued to pilot aspirants via the eGCA/Pariksha portal. Without a verified Computer Number, candidates cannot book or sit for any official DGCA CPL or ATPL ground theory examinations.

Q2: What are the eligibility criteria to become a Commercial Pilot (CPL) in India?

Answer: Candidates must be at least 17 years old to start ground exams (18 years for license issuance) and must have passed Class 12 (10+2) with Physics and Mathematics from a recognized board. Non-science/Arts/Commerce students can become eligible by completing Physics and Math through the National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS).

Q3: What is the pass mark for DGCA CPL pilot theory exams?

Answer: The passing mark for all DGCA pilot theory examinations (CPL and ATPL) is 70% (minimum 70 out of 100) per subject.

Q4: What subjects must a student pilot pass to earn a CPL in India?

Answer: Aspiring CPL holders must clear 5 primary DGCA ground subjects:

  • Air Regulations (aviation laws, rules of the air)
  • Air Navigation (flight planning, track calculations, radio aids)
  • Aviation Meteorology (weather patterns, charts, atmosphere)
  • Technical General (aircraft mechanics, engines, systems, aerodynamics)
  • Technical Specific (aircraft model-specific systems, e.g., Cessna 172 or Piper Seneca)

Additionally, candidates must clear the Radio Telephony Restricted – Aeronautical [RTR(A)] examination.

Q5: Is a Class 1 Medical required before taking DGCA pilot written exams?

Answer: No. You can start appearing for DGCA CPL ground exams with a valid Class 2 Medical Certificate. However, a valid Class 1 Medical Certificate is mandatory before joining a Flying Training Organization (FTO) for flight logging and before the DGCA issues your commercial license.

Q6: What is the RTR(A) exam and who conducts it?

Answer: RTR(A)—Radio Telephony Restricted (Aeronautical)—tests standard aviation communication phraseology, emergency protocols, and radio transmission rules. It is essential for communicating with Air Traffic Control (ATC). Examinations are conducted directly through DGCA/WPC portals.

Q7: How long are passed DGCA pilot exam results valid?

Answer: Passed DGCA CPL theory papers remain valid for 5 years from the date of result declaration. Candidates must complete their required 200 flying hours and apply for their CPL within this 5-year window.

Q8: What is the difference between CPL (Commercial Pilot License) and ATPL (Airline Transport Pilot License)?

Answer: A CPL allows a pilot to fly as a First Officer (Co-Pilot) in commercial airlines or act as Pilot-in-Command (PIC) on non-airline commercial flights. An ATPL is the highest civil aviation license, allowing a pilot to command large commercial passenger airliners as Captain. ATPL theory exams cover advanced navigation, radio aids, and operational procedures.

Q9: What is the average cost and time needed to clear all DGCA CPL theory exams?

Answer: Preparing for ground classes typically takes 6 to 12 months. Exam registration fees are approximately ₹2,500 per subject for regular sessions. Most students clear all 5 subjects within 2 to 4 exam sessions with structured study.

Q10: How do previous year question papers help aspiring pilots pass CPL exams?

Answer: DGCA exams heavily test numerical calculations (in Air Navigation) and strict rule interpretations (in Air Regulations). Solving authentic past question papers helps candidates master time management, familiarize themselves with recurring question patterns, and avoid trick choices.

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